Jesus is God’s servant
All of mankind are the servants of God. If a man were to own another man, then that man would be his servant. Obviously, this servant would be held in a lower regard than this man’s own children (or himself). We do not usually find people telling their sons (or themselves): “come here my servant,” or “Go over there my servant.”
Let us compare this with what God has to say about Jesus (pbuh):
1)Matthew 12:18: “Behold my servant, whom I have chosen.”
2)Acts 3:13(RSV): “The God of Abraham, and of Isaac, hath glorified his servant Jesus.”
3)Acts 4:27(RSV): “For of a truth against thy holy servant Jesus, whom thou hast anointed….”
The Actual Greek word used is “pias” or “paida” which mean; “servant, child, son, manservant.” Some translations of the Bible, such as the popular King James Version, have translated this word as “Son” when it is attributed to Jesus (pbuh) and “servant” for most everyone else, while more recent translations of the Bible such as the Revised Standard Version (RSV) now honestly translate it as “servant.”
As we shall see in later chapters, the RSV was compiled by thirty-two Biblical scholars of the highest eminence, backed by 50 cooperating Christian denominations from the “most” ancient Biblical manuscripts available to them today. Chances are that no matter what your church or denomination you are able to name, that church took part in the correction of the King James Version of the Bible which resulted in the RSV.
This fact is indeed confirmed by Jesus in both the Bible as well as the Qur’an where in both places he bears witness that, like all faithful Muslims, he is but a servant of God. He says:
“For I have not spoken of myself; but the father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak. And I know that his commandment is life everlasting: whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the father said unto me, so I speak.”
(Also see John 8:28-29)
In the noble Qur’an we read: “The Messiah will never scorn to be a servant of Allah, nor will the favored angels. Whosoever scorns His service and is proud, all such will He assemble unto Him; Then as for those who believed and did good works, unto them will he pay their wages in full and shall increase them from His bounty. [But] as for those who were scornful and proud, He shall punish hem with a painful torment, nor will they find for themselves other than Allah any ally or champion”
The noble Qur’an, Al-Nisa(4:172-174)
The exact same word “pias” is attributed to Jacob (Israel) in Luke 1:54 and translated as “servant”:
“He hath helped his servant Israel, in remembrance of his mercy;”
It is also applied to King David in Luke 1:69, and once again, it is translated as “servant”:
“…. the house of his servant David;” (also see Acts 4:25).
However, when it is applied to Jesus (e.g., Acts 3:13, Acts 4:27), NOW it is translated as “Son.” (Notice that it is not only translated as “son” but as “Son”.) Why the double standard? Why the dishonest translation techniques?
“And verily, among them is a party who twist their tongues with the Scripture that you might think that it is from the Scripture, but it is not from the Scripture; and they say, ‘It is from Allah’ but it is not from Allah; and they speak a lie against Allah while [well] they know it!”
The noble Qur’an, Al-Imran (3:78)
Does God have a God?
In John 20:17 we read:
“Jesus saith unto her, …I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.”
Not only is God Jesus’ father, but He is also his GOD. Think about this carefully. Also notice how Jesus is equating between himself and mankind in these matters and not between himself and God. He is making it as clear as he possibly can that he is one of US and not a god. Why did he not just say “I ascend unto my Father, and your Father .” … and stop !?
Why did Jesus feel it necessary to add the words “…and to my God, and your God.” What additional information was he trying to convey to us with these extra words? Think about it carefully.
Please also read 2 Corinthians 11:31, Ephesians 1:3, Ephesians 1:17, and 1 Peter 1:3 for similar affirmations of Jesus having a God.
“Surly they have disbelieved who say: ‘Allah is the Messiah, son of Mary.’ But the Messiah said: ‘O Children of Israel! Worship Allah, my Lord and your Lord.’ Verily, whosoever sets up partners in worship with Allah then Allah has forbidden Paradise upon him, and his abode is the Fire. And for the unjust there are no allys”
The noble Qur’an, Al-Maidah(5):72
Is God greater than Himself?
Okay, If Jesus and God are two distinct gods and one is greater than the other (“my Father is greater than I” John 14:28) then this contradicts such verses as Isaiah 43:10-11 and the very definition of the “Trinity” (see section 2.2.5) which includes the words: “..Co-equality..” in its definition (see section 2.2.8).
However, if they are not two separate gods, but ONE god, as claimed by all Trinitarians (like Mr. J), then is Jesus (pbuh) praying to himself? Is, for instance, his mind praying to his soul? Why?