Because he performed miracles?
Well then, is Jesus the son of God because he raised the dead? If so, then what about Ezekiel who is said to have raised many more dead bodies than Jesus ever did. Ezekiel is said to have raised a whole city from the dead (Ezekiel 37:1-9)
If we are looking for Godly powers and miracles as proof of godliness then what about Joshua who is said to have stopped the sun and moon for one whole day: (Joshua 10:12-13). Can anyone but God Almighty do this?
Elisha is said to have raised the dead, resurrected himself, healed a leper, fed a hundred people with twenty barley loaves and a few ears of corn, and healed a blind man: (2 Kings 4:35, 13:21, 5:14, 4:44, and 6:11.)
Elijah is said to have raised the dead, and made a bowl of flour and a jar of oil inexhaustible for many days (1 Kings 17:22 and 14.)
To say nothing of Moses (pbuh) and his countless miracles. Of his parting of the sea, of his changing of a stick into a serpent, of his changing of water into blood, ..etc.
And so forth……
Even Jesus (pbuh) himself tells us that miracles by themselves do not prove anything:
“For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall shew great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect”
So even false Christs can supply great wonders and miracles of such magnitude that even the most knowledgeable among men shall be deceived.
Jesus (pbuh) had a beginning (the begetting) and an end (“and he gave up the ghost”) Melchizedec, however, is said to have had no beginning of days nor end of life but was “made like unto the Son of God” !.
“For this Melchizedec, king of Salem, priest of the most high God, who met Abraham returning from the slaughter of the kings, and blessed him; To whom also Abraham gave a tenth part of all; first being by interpretation King of righteousness, and after that also King of Salem, which is, King of peace; Without father, without mother, without descent, having neither beginning of days, nor end of life; but made like unto the Son of God; abideth a priest continually. Now consider how great this man [was], unto whom even the patriarch Abraham gave the tenth of the spoils.”
Solomon is said to have been with God at the beginning of time before all of creation, Proverbs 8:22-31.
Well then, is Jesus (pbuh) god because he performed his miracles under his own power while others needed God to perform them for them? Let us then read:
1)Matthew 28:18 “And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.”
2)Matthew 9:8 “But when the multitudes saw [it], they marvelled, and glorified God, which had given such power unto men.”
3)Luke 11:20: “But if I with the finger of God cast out devils.”
4)John 10:32 “Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father”
5)Matthew 12:28 “But if I cast out devils by the Spirit of God.”
6)John 5:30: “I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.”
7)John 10:25: “the works that I do in my Father’s name.”
8)John 8:28-29 “…I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things. And he that sent me is with me: the Father hath not left me alone; for I do always those things that please him.”
9)Acts 2:22 “Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know”
So we see that even the apostle of Jesus (pbuh), Peter “the Rock,” bore witness many years after the departure of Jesus not that Jesus was “God, the Son of God, who did miracles through his Omnipotence,” rather, he openly bore witness before all those present that Jesus was “a man.” He then went on to make sure that the masses would not be mislead by Jesus’ miracles into thinking that he was more than a man by emphasizing that it was not Jesus who did the miracles, rather,
just as was the case with countless other prophets before him, it was God Himself who did these miracles and that God’s prophets are simply the tools through which He performed His miracles. In other words, the point that Peter was trying to drive home to these people was for them to remember that just as Moses’ parting of the seas did not make him God or the son of God, and just as Elisha’s raising of the dead did not make him God or the son of God, so too was the case with Jesus.
What was the goal behind the performance of these miracles? Let us read John 11:42 where we find that just before Jesus raised Lazarus from the dead, he made a point of making sure that the crowd would not misunderstand what he was about to do or why he did it, so he publicly stated before God while they were listening that, just as was the case with all previous prophets, the reason why he was given these miracles was in order to prove that God had sent Him and he was a true prophet:
“And I knew that Thou hearest me always; but because of the people standing around I said it, that they may believe that Thou didst send Me.”.
Because he was filled with the Holy Ghost?
Well then was Jesus (pbuh) the son of God because he was filled with the Holy Ghost? Let us read
1)Luke 1:67 “Zacharias was filled with the Holy Ghost.”
2)Luke 1:41 “Elisabeth was filled with the Holy Ghost.”
3)Acts 4:8 “Then Peter, filled with the Holy Ghost said.”
4)Acts 13:9 “Then Paul, filled with the Holy Ghost, set his eyes on him..”
5)Acts 2:4 “And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak.”
Is Jesus(pbuh) a god because he was filled with the Holy Spirit from his mother’s womb? If this is the case then John the Baptist should be a god also, as claimed in Luke 1:13-15.
Because he was the “Image of God”?
Some will now say: But in the Bible we read:
“….Christ, who is the image of God.”
2 Corinthians 4:4
Surely this makes Jesus God. Well then, we should also read
“So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them.”
Because God was his “Father”?
Is Jesus (pbuh) a divine son of God because he called God “Father”? Well, how do all Christians refer to Him? What does Jesus himself have to tell us in this regard? Let us read
“That ye may be the children of your Father which is in heaven…”
and “Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.”
“and I (God) will receive you, And will be a Father unto you, and ye shall be my sons and daughters, saith the Lord Almighty.”
2 Corinthians 6:17-18
There are countless verses in the Bible to this effect. To understand what is meant by the reference to “Father” we need only read John 8:42:
“Jesus said unto them, If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me.”
So the love of God and His prophets is what makes God someone’s “father.” Similarly,
“Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do.”
Obviously neither the Devil nor God is the physical father of any of them. The term “Father” in that day and age was used by the Jews in the same sense that Christians use the word “father” today to address a priest. It was not meant to be taken literally. Otherwise, the Bible would bear witness that every believer in Jesus (pbuh) is also the “physical” son of God.
Further, please note that Joseph is called a “father” to Pharaoh in Genesis 45:8, and Job is called the “father” of the poor in Job 29:16. Once we read all of this we begin to understand how the Jews used to understand the reference to God Almighty as “Father.”